http://www.worldofwarcraft.com/legal/eula.html
Took all of 4 seconds to find it by typing in "WOW eula agreement" to the address bar in firefox.
Not to mention its listed on the box, as I had said earlier in the thread.
Also the TOS link is contained within the EULA page. http://www.worldofwarcraft.com/legal/termsofuse.shtml
Since you refused to spend the initial 4 seconds to look up the EULA. heres the link to the TOS as well.
The information is there and available with little to no effort.
Any argument of " there was no reference to it on the box is moot. As It has been established it was there. I have the game, i see the print on the side of it. As for the argument even if it wasn't there?. It falls under common knowledge. 99% or better of gamers know all new games come with an EULA, so to say "if theres no warning of one on the box then I had no idea it had one". Is about as strong of an argument that, buying a gun from a pawn shop should come with a warning not to shoot your self in the foot.
Its common knowledge and common sense.
The statement was "As it has been repeadtily said" - which in many places would be commonly assumed to imply "Recently, in this thread" - not, mayhap, in another conversation, someplace else, in an alternate universe.
I assumed he hadn't been lying about it being on the web or that the URL for that website was on the box. I said
A) after searching with several search terms for 'link', 'box', etcetera I saw no evidence of this being repeatedly said. Willy has been kind enough to reference the fact that it was is fact brought up once, by him, in
Post #240 - Thank you sir. That said - 1/291 or aprox 0.3436% of posts referenced this fact.

Neither that post nor any other including the post that brought up how it had been repeatedly mentioned, has posited that this fact would make a whit of difference regarding whether they would consider this EULA binding. UCC 2 establishes some things quite clearly, one of which is that contracts between merchants and consumers have specific standards as to what makes it a valid contract.
I've only posted the relevant paragraph, clearly linked twenty or thirty times, so hey, what the heck I'll post the darn thing again, although I'm not entirely sure why I can have four people post about something mentioned once and never used in a cogent argument establishes my incompetence, but the people that haven't read the UCC all the way through after the last twenty posts are considered to be on the ball.
But here we fricking go again!
§ 2-201. Formal Requirements; Statute of Frauds.(1) A contract for the sale of goods for the price of $5,000 or more is not enforceable by way of action or defense unless there is some record sufficient to indicate that a contract for sale has been made between the parties and signed by the party against which enforcement is sought or by the party's authorized agent or broker. A record is not insufficient because it omits or incorrectly states a term agreed upon but the contract is not enforceable under this subsection beyond the quantity of goods shown in the record.
(2) Between merchants if within a reasonable time a record in confirmation of the contract and sufficient against the sender is received and the party receiving it has reason to know its contents, it satisfies the requirements of subsection (1) against the recipient unless notice of objection to its contents is given in a record within 10 days after it is received.
(3) A contract that does not satisfy the requirements of subsection (1) but which is valid in other respects is enforceable:
(a) if the goods are to be specially manufactured for the buyer and are not suitable for sale to others in the ordinary course of the seller's business and the seller, before notice of repudiation is received and under circumstances that reasonably indicate that the goods are for the buyer, has made either a substantial beginning of their manufacture or commitments for their procurement;
(

if the party against which enforcement is sought admits in the party's pleading, or in the party's testimony or otherwise under oath that a contract for sale was made, but the contract is not enforceable under this paragraph beyond the quantity of goods admitted; or
(c) with respect to goods for which payment has been made and accepted or which have been received and accepted (Sec. 2-606).
(4) A contract that is enforceable under this section is not unenforceable merely because it is not capable of being performed within one year or any other period after its making.
§ 2-209. Modification, Rescission and Waiver.(1) An agreement modifying a contract within this Article needs no consideration to be binding.
(2) An agreement in a signed record which excludes modification or rescission except by a signed record may not be otherwise modified or rescinded, but except as between merchants such a requirement in a form supplied by the merchant must be separately signed by the other party.
(3) The requirements of Section 2-201 must be satisfied if the contract as modified is within its provisions.
(4) Although an attempt at modification or rescission does not satisfy the requirements of subsection (2) or (3), it may operate as a waiver.
(5) A party that has made a waiver affecting an executory portion of a contract may retract the waiver by reasonable notification received by the other party that strict performance will be required of any term waived, unless the retraction would be unjust in view of a material change of position in reliance on the waiver
Once again - you made a sale contract when you bought the box.
*
either*
A) The EULA is a modification to a sales contract, in which case it is only enforceable for a consumer if you knew and signed for those terms
at the time of the sale.
or
as Willy *says* he accepts, the EULA is a
separate contract, in which case the waiver in 2-209 regarding consideration
does not apply. In fact, since you're not buying anything, it doesn't even qualify for the easy standards of UCC 2 Uniform Commercial Code-Sales, you're back into full contract law territory.
And for the EULA to be valid as a separate contract, under *either* UCC2 *or* regular contract law, both sides have to receive consideration - They have to get something from it and I have to get something from it.
Now, as an owner of the disk (Not the Intellectual Property of the software, but the legitimate owner of that physical copy) I have the right under U.S. law to use that software for normal use. What the heck I'll post that too:
§ 117. Limitations on exclusive rights: Computer programs(a) Making of Additional Copy or Adaptation by
Owner of Copy.— Notwithstanding the provisions of section 106, it is not an infringement for the owner of a copy of a computer program to make or authorize the making of another copy or adaptation of that computer program provided:
(1) that such a new copy or adaptation is created as an essential step in the utilization of the computer program in conjunction with a machine and that it is used in no other manner, or
(2) that such new copy or adaptation is for archival purposes only and that all archival copies are destroyed in the event that continued possession of the computer program should cease to be rightful.
So, if I own that
copy until I sign the EULA, then I have the right to use those programs. Right until the EULA that takes my ownership of those copies away, which it could do as a valid contract.
Except - I have to get something in return
for it to be a valid contract - both sides have to get consideration, a 'contract' where only one side gets anything is not actually a contract. So - what do I get from the EULA? The right to copy/install the software? No - I
already had that right under § 117 of the copyright act.
The EULA does not give me *
anything* in return for the rights it takes away.
So if the EULA is a modification to the sales contract, it fails completely to meet the standards for a consumer, and I have strong reservations regarding whether it would be valid between merchants (Saying you don't own the physical copy of the software is *not* a standard term in EULA's, which would put it out of the realms of even 'between merchants' sales, but that's an entirely different argument.) , but that depends on specific circumstances and the exact terms.
If it's a
separate contract, then it fails worse - because I have to actually *get* something out of it for it to qualify.
This has been posted before - the wording is not some terribly esoteric latin derivative going back to Ancient Rome here. Copyright law gives you the right to use that disk.
Contract law has provisions for taking away that right, provided that you were made aware and legally acknowledged those terms
when you bought it (if done as a modification to the sales contract), or for exchanging those rights for other consideration (if it's a separate contract).
But neither of those interpretations apply here. As a consumer, I can't agree to terms I haven't had explained to me, as a separate contract, the software company has to give me a pony when I sign for it.
People keep complaining that my posts go on forever - if people actually read through them, I wouldn't have to post the same thing over and over.
Jonnan